[ODE] Brakes and rotational damping

Chris Ledwith cledwith at d-a-s.com
Thu Feb 9 16:01:29 MST 2006

Chris Ledwith wrote:
> Matthew Harmon wrote:
>> I guess my real question boils down to this:  Is there anything
>> fundamentally "wrong" with taking the angular velocity of a body, reducing
>> it, and putting it back?  It seems like a kludge, but that sort of how
>> brakes work in the real world.  They don't apply a "counter-torque" as such,
>> they bleed off momentum into heat.
> Yes, this is caused by a torque. 
> torque=rotational_inertia*angular_acceleration, so torque is what 
> produces changes in rotational velocity. Google 'braking torque'
> -C
Slight correction/clarification -- in the case of brake pads and rotors, 
it's really F=ma, where the force is applied tangentially to slow the 
rotor down. But torque is just the rotational analog of force, so the 
"torque equivalent" can be derived.


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